wirralaccordion
Well-known member
- Joined
- Mar 22, 2017
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What is meant by “true musette” as opposed to musette?
I understand the basic premise of tuning two notes to slightly different frequencies to produce beats giving a tremolo or vibrato effect. Hence, in an accordion there is a requirement for two reeds at 8 ft. Such accordions are then described as MM, LMM, or LMMH.
However, I have often heard it said that “true musette” is only achievable by the use of three 8 ft reeds. Hence, such accordions would be described as MMM, LMMM or LMMMH.
My question is if the three reeds are at three different frequencies and there are then 3 beats, i.e. between M1 and M2, between M1 and M3 and between M2 and M3, in what way does this “true musette” sound different to M1 and M3 when there is no M2?
I have a LM1M2M3 accordion and to me the M1M3 is wetter ( more “musettey” ) than M1M2M3 but how would you describe the difference?
I understand the basic premise of tuning two notes to slightly different frequencies to produce beats giving a tremolo or vibrato effect. Hence, in an accordion there is a requirement for two reeds at 8 ft. Such accordions are then described as MM, LMM, or LMMH.
However, I have often heard it said that “true musette” is only achievable by the use of three 8 ft reeds. Hence, such accordions would be described as MMM, LMMM or LMMMH.
My question is if the three reeds are at three different frequencies and there are then 3 beats, i.e. between M1 and M2, between M1 and M3 and between M2 and M3, in what way does this “true musette” sound different to M1 and M3 when there is no M2?
I have a LM1M2M3 accordion and to me the M1M3 is wetter ( more “musettey” ) than M1M2M3 but how would you describe the difference?